GENERAL STUDIES FOR ALL UPSC/PSC EXAMS Headline Animator

Flipkart.com

Thursday, December 15, 2011

IAS Main Exam 2011 Solved General Studies Paper- I

General Studies Paper – I

1. Answer any three of the following in about 250 words each:         20x3=60

(a) ‘Essentially all that is contained in part IV- A of the Constitution is just a codification of tasks integral to Indian way of life.’ Critically examine the statement.

Answer:

Article 51A of the part IV-A of the Indian Constitution lists the fundamental duties of the citizens which were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act. Fundamental duties are restrictions on the citizens, but they are not enforceable in a court of law. They act more like a lighthouse to guide citizens’ conduct and bring it in conformity with the Indian way of life. They include abiding the constitution and respecting its ideals and institutions such as the National Flag and the National Anthem. Fundamental Duties also include cherishing and following the noble ideals that inspired our freedom struggle, upholding the sovereignty and integrity of the nation, rendering national services, promoting harmony and brotherhood, renouncing practices derogatory to the dignity of women, safeguarding public property, developing scientific temper etc.

Incidents like destruction of public property by violent mobs and protestors, delivering of hate speeches to cause disharmony and rift among communities, mounting corruption, declining child sex ratio, reports of practices like sati which still is continuing in some parts of the country point towards the fact that the republic has not succeeded completely in instilling the values contained in part IV-A, in the hearts and minds of the Indian citizens.

These values should be taught from the early childhood through a free, fair, secular, and non-discriminatory education system. The society also needs role models from all walks of life such as politics, business, administration, judiciary, academia etc.  so that national identity becomes paramount and the values are most cherished.


(b) ‘The exercise of executive clemency is not a privilege but is based on several principles, and discretion has to be exercised in public consideration.’ Analyse this statement in the context of judicial powers of the President of India.

Answer:

Article 72 of the Indian Constitution empowers the president to pardon, remit, commute, respite and reprieves a person of any offence. Supreme Court has held that pardoning power of the President is subject to judicial review and it should not be handled dishonestly in the public interest.

The question of executive clemency has come into focus due to the recent decision of the President’s rejecting the mercy plea of those, convicted in the Rajiv Gandhi assassination case and Tamil Nadu assembly’s passage of a resolution over it. The Afzal Guru case has also not yet been resolved which also is giving political colour to the whole issue.

Supreme Court in its 1989 judgement laid down several principles or ‘do’s’ and ‘don’ts’ with respect to the executive clemency. The apex court observed that the delay in making a decision on the death penalty leads to adverse psychological impact on the convicted and it amounts to the court’s inhuman and brutal treatment. Thus inordinate delay can form the basis for clemency. It also observed that the nature of crime needs to be taken into consideration before granting executive clemency. The conduct of the convicted cannot form the basis for granting clemency and the time calculated should be from the date the final verdict was given on the case if it needs to form the ground for clemency.

Constitution should be amended to provide the time limits within which mercy petition are to be decided. Importantly, the political parties should restrain from politicising the power of the President which is supposed to be used in the public consideration.


(c) Discuss the extent, causes, and implications of ‘nutrition transition’ said to be underway in India.

Answer:
Nutrition Transition can be referred to as the increased consumption of unhealthy foods compounded with increased prevalence of overweight in middle-to-low-income countries. It has serious implications in terms of public health outcomes, risk factors, economic growth and international nutrition policy.

Extent: As developing societies like India industrialise and urbanise, and as standards of living continue to rise, weight gain and obesity are beginning to pose a growing threat to the health of the citizens. Repeated episodes of malnutrition, followed by nutritional rehabilitation, are known to alter body composition and increase the risk of obesity. Food balance data from the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) show that the change in energy intake in Asian countries has been small, but there have been large changes in consumption of animal products, sugars and fats in countries like India. There is a progressive increase in the intake of protein, and probably fats. The increase in the intake of protein and fats is due to the phenomenal increase in the consumption of milk and milk products and an increase in the intake of animal products. On the other hand consumption of pulses and legumes has fallen drastically in India.

Causes: In India, the demographic and epidemiological transition, the forces of internal migration and urbanisation, the changes in food consumption patterns and low physical activity patterns to an epidemic of obesity and other NCDs (Non-communicable Diseases). There is also a  decrease in the energy expenditure in occupational activities, increased urbanisation, universal use of motor cars, mechanisation of most manual jobs outside the occupational sphere and increasing leisure time have aggravated this trend in India.

Implications: There is a large increase in the non-communicable diseases (NCDs) in the developing countries specially the countries under transition like India. Approximately 40% of the deaths in the developing countries take place due to NCDs.

(d) Bring out the salient features of the PCPNDT Act, 1994, and the implication of its amendment in 2003.

Answer:
Pre Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Technique Act, 1994 was enacted to arrest the declining sex ration. It is a subject of discussion now because; an all-time low child sex ratio of 914 was reported in the 2011 provisional census data.

The main purpose of enacting the act is to ban the use of sex selection techniques before or after conception and prevent the misuse of prenatal diagnostic technique for sex selective absorption.

Offences under this act include conducting or helping in the conduct of prenatal diagnostic technique in the unregistered units, sex selection on a man or woman, conducting PND test for any purpose other than the one mentioned in the act, sale, distribution, supply, renting etc. of any ultra sound machine or any other equipment capable of detecting sex of the foetus.

The act was amended in 2003 to improve the regulation of the technology used in sex selection.

Implications of PCPNDT Act, 1994 amendment:

1. Amendment of the act mainly covered bringing the technique of pre conception sex selection within the ambit of the act

2. Bringing ultrasound within its ambit

3. Empowering the central supervisory board, constitution of state level supervisory board

4. Provision for more stringent punishments

5. Empowering appropriate authorities with the power of civil court for search, seizure and sealing the machines and equipments of the violators

6. Regulating the sale of the ultrasound machines only to registered bodies

2. Answer one of the following in about 250 words:        20x1=20

(a) Trace the salient sequences of events in popular revolt that took place in February 1946 in the then Royal Indian Navy and bring out its significance in the freedom struggle. Do you agree with the views that the sailors who took part in this revolt were some of the unsung heroes of the freedom struggle?

Answer:

Royal Indian Navy revolt of February 1946 took place in the background of Quit India Movement and Second World War. This was a very turbulent phase in India’s freedom struggle. The popular revolt shook the very foundation of British Raj and made it abundantly clear that their time in India was numbered.
In November 1945 some students from Forward Block, Students Federation of India and Islamia College participated in a protest march over the INA trials. They tied together League, Congress and red flag, as a symbol of anti imperialist unity.

In February 1946, Muslim League students took a protest march in which some Congress students also participated against the seven year sentence to INA prisoner Rashid Ali.

In February 1946, naval ratings of HMIS Talwar went on strike to protest against racial discrimination, unpalatable food, INA trials, and abuse by superior officers. This was followed by city people joining in through mass strikes, hartals, meetings, attacks on police stations, railway station etc. Other parts of the country also expressed support in the form of strikes by Royal Indian Forces in Calcutta, Puna and Bombay.

The upsurge showed that the fearless action by the masses, revolt in armed forces had psychological affect on masses and it also prompted British to extend some concessions but above all it marked the end of British rule in India.

Sailors who took part in the struggle were the unsung heroes as they did not get the level of publicity as that of the INA trials and in the pages of history; they remain anonymous and unknown.

(b) Evaluate the influence of three important women’s organisations of the early twentieth century in India on country’s society and politics. To what extent do you think were the social objectives of these organisations constrained by their political objectives?

Answer:

Bharat Stree Mahamandal, All India Women’s Conference and Women’s India Association were some of the important women’s associations of the early twentieth century. Bharat Stree Mahamandal was the first women's organisation in India founded by Sarala Devi Chaudhurani in Allahabad in 1910. One of the primary goals of the organisation was to promote female education which was not well developed at that time. The organisation opened several offices in Lahore, Allahabad, Delhi, Karachi, Amritsar etc. to improve the condition of women all over India.

All India Women’s Conference was founded in 1927 by Margret cousins having Sarojni Naidu, Lady Dorab Tata as its founding members. It worked towards women’s education, abolition of purdah system, legislative reform, abolition of child marriage, harijan welfare, family planning, and rural reconstruction. These women’s organisations worked for a society based on principles of social justice, integrity, equal rights and opportunities.  They wanted security for every human being; the essentials of life not determined by accidental births but by planned social distribution.

Their efforts led to several legislative reforms in Sharda Act (1929), Hindu Women’s Right to Property Act (1937), Factory Act (1947), Hindu Marriage and Divorce Act etc. AIWC efforts also led to setting up of The All India Women’s Education Fund
Association, and Lady Irwin College of Home Science.

Social and educational reforms effort by the women’s associations helped in preparing the Indian women to participate in the freedom struggle. With Mahatma Gandhi women availed an opportunity to get into the scene of freedom struggle.

3. Answer any one of the following in about 250 words:    20x1=20

(a) Critically examine the design of National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) scheme. Do you think it has a better chance of
success than the Swarna Jayanti Swarojgar Yojna(SGSY) in achieving its objectives?

Answer:

NRLM is the rechristened version of Swarna Jayanti Swarojgar Yojna (SGSY). It is a Ministry of Rural Development programme. It aims to reduce poverty by enabling the poor household to access gainful self employment and skilled wage employment opportunity resulting in a sustainable livelihood.

NRLM is based on three pillars

1. Enhancing and expanding the existing livelihood options of the poor

2. Building skills for the job market

3. Nurturing self employed and entrepreneurs

NRLM plans to give special focus on the poorest households who are currently dependent on the MGNREGA. The design of
NRLM is more likely to succeed because its implementation is in a mission mode which enables it shift from the present allocation based approach to demand based approach. This enables the states to formulate their own livelihood based on poverty reduction action plans. It also focuses on targets, outcomes, and time bound strategy. The monitoring would be done against the targets of the poverty outcomes. NRLM will have continuous capacity building, imparting of requisite skills and creating linkages with livelihood opportunities for the poor, including those emerging from the organised sector.

NRLM funds will be directly released to the state level agencies and DRDA based on the detailed district wise annual action plan.  It will involve the Self Help Group in the implementation which increases the likelihood of its success. National Skill Development Council will also coordinate in the skill development part in the implementation of NRLM. In order to ensure institutional arrangement for skill development for self employment and wage employment, dedicated training institute for rural BPL youth i.e Rural Self Employment Training Institutes (RSETIs) are being set up with the aim of having at least one such institution in each district in India. These RSETIs will be set up with the partnership of banks. This will help in achieving the objectives of NRLM.

(b) Highlight the structure, objectives and role of the Advertising Standard Council of India. In what way has the August 2006
government notification made it more effective?

Answer:

The Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI), established in 1985, is committed to the cause of Self-Regulation in Advertising, ensuring the protection of the interests of consumers. The ASCI was formed with the support of all four sectors connected with Advertising, viz. Advertisers, Ad Agencies, Media (including Broadcasters and the Press) and others like PR Agencies, Market Research Companies etc. Its main objective is to promote responsible advertising; thus enhancing the public's confidence in Advertising. ASCI thus aims to achieve its own overarching goal i.e., to maintain and enhance the public's confidence in advertising.

The Board of Governors (16 members) ensures equitable representation of Advertisers, Agencies, Media and other Advertising Services, the individual member firms being leaders in their respective industries or services. The Consumer Complaints Council (CCC) (21 members) has 12 Non-Advertising professionals representing civil society, who are eminent and recognised opinion leaders in their respective disciplines such as Medical, Legal, Industrial Design, Engineering, Chemical Technology, Human Resources and Consumer Interest Groups; 9 are advertising practitioners from our member firms.

ASCI is represented in all committees working on advertising content in every Ministry of the Government of India. ASCI’s Code for Self-Regulation in Advertising is now part of ad code under Cable TV Act’s Rules. Violation of ASCI’s Code is now treated as a violation of the government’s rules. ASCI’s membership of The European Advertising Standards Alliance (EASA) ensures that it gets valuable advice, learning and even influence at the international level.
The Consumer Complaints Council is ASCI's heart and soul. It is the dedicated work put in by this group of highly respected people that has given tremendous impetus to the work of ASCI and the movement of self-regulation in the advertising.

In August 2006, the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting issued a notification deeming it necessary for all TV commercials in India to abide by the ASCI code. This effort of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting has made the advertising self-regulatory movement in India stronger and more effective.


4. Comment on any five of the following in about 150 words each.    12x5=60

(a) Salient recommendations of the RBI-appointed Damodaran committee on customer service in Banks.

Answer:

The Damodaran Committee on bank customer services has recommended active involvement of the boards of banks to guarantee customer satisfaction. The committee held that customer service and grievance redress should be included as a mandatory parameter in the performance appraisal report of all employees.

The committee has suggested that an agenda on the level of implementation of the Bank's Code of Commitments to Customers and an overview on the grievance redress mechanism in the bank should be placed before the bank every quarter before the Customer Service Committee.

The committee suggets that every board should ensure they have comprehensive policies for customer acceptance, care and severance. The banks should show sensitivity for small customers by ensuring that the pricing (bank charges) does not act as a deterrent for the small person to do banking transactions.

Emphasising on 'customer centricity', the committee recommended that bank boards should evolve human resources policies which should recruit for attitude and train for skills.

(b) Deendayal Disabled Rehabilitation Scheme (DDRS).

Answer:

It is a scheme by the Central Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment. Its funding pattern is up to 90 percent; it is funded by the Central Ministry. The Grant in Aid is released on the basis of recommendations received from the State Government, UTs through State Multi-Disciplinary grant-in-aid committee concerned or any other agency designated by the Ministry. Beneficiary could be an individual, a family, a community, women and Children.

The voluntary organisations are assisted in running rehabilitation centres for leprosy cured persons and also for manpower
development in the field of mental retardation and cerebral palsy. They are also assisted in establishment and development of special schools for major disability areas, viz. Orthopaedic, speech, hearing, visual and mental disability. The NGOs are extended assistance for setting up projects of vocational training to facilitate the disabled persons to be as independent as possible by acquiring basic skills. The Ministry, under the Scheme supports both recurring and non-recurring expenditure of projects by NGOs up to 90 percent.

(c) Evolution of ‘Green Benches’ in our higher judiciary.

Answer:

The Supreme Court of India interpreted Article 21 which guarantees the fundamental right to life and personal liberty, to include the right to a wholesome environment and held that a litigant may assert his or her right to a healthy environment against the State by a writ petition to the Supreme Court or a High Court. Public interest litigation has been used by the higher judiciary to ensure environment protection and safeguard public interest.

Till 1980, not much contribution was made by the courts in preserving the environment. One of the earliest cases which came to the Supreme Court of India was Municipal Council, Ratlam, vs Vardhichand AIR 1980 SC 1622. Thereafter, series of cases were filed before the Supreme Court and there was a dynamic change in the whole approach of the courts in matters concerning environment.
India has now become the third country in the world to start a National Green Tribunal (NGT) which is a judicial body exclusively meant to judge environmental cases. The National Green Tribunal has been established under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources. The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same. The predecessor to the NGT, the erstwhile National Environment Appellate Authority has been superseded by the NGT.

(d) Distinction between ‘Department Related Parliament Standing committees’ and ‘Parliamentary Forum’.

Answer:

Departmental Standing Committees were created in 1993 to exercise control over the executive; particularly financial control. There are now 2 such committees having 31 members each; 21 from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha. Members from the Lok Sabha are nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, while members from the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the Rajya Sabha Chairman. A minister cannot be nominated as a member of the committee. These committees consider the demand for grants of the concerned ministry. They submit the reports based on which the discussion on budget takes place.

Parliamentary Forums on the other hand are ad hoc in nature and are constituted for specific issues to make the Members of the Parliament aware of the seriousness of the particular situation and to enable them to adopt a result-oriented approach towards these issues. The Parliamentary fora do not interfere in or encroach upon the jurisdiction of the concerned Departmentally Related Standing Committees or the Ministry/Department concerned. Members of these fora are nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, as the case may be.

(e) Benefits and potential drawbacks of ‘cash transfers’ to Below Poverty Line Households.

Answer:

Cash transfer has come into discussion due to the leakages in several government schemes like the Public Distribution System. It has been successful in Latin American countries. Cash transfer has some benefits in terms of better targeting of public subsidy, reducing diversion, preventing corruption, and eliminating wastages in transportation and storage of goods like food grains. It also gives flexibility to the citizens in terms of buying the public goods and services. Cash transfer is also suitable for migrating population that moves in search of work.

Cash transfer on the other hand can only succeed if an appropriate IT infrastructure exits, through which cash can be transferred directly to the account of the beneficiary which becomes a challenge in the poor financial inclusion. Cash can be more prone to diversion if proper safeguards are not taken. Moreover cash transfer can work if the public delivery system is in place for e.g. how giving cash for health services will make any difference if there are no hospitals, medicines and doctors in the villages. Factoring inflation into cash transfer is always been a challenge.

(f) New initiatives during the 11th Five Year Plan in the National Programme for Control of Blindness (NPCB).

Answer:

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) endorsed and approved a budget of INR 12,500 million for the XI five-year (2007-12) plan period. The enhanced funding and financial allocation to the tune of nearly two-thirds of the previous plan period is indicative of the high political commitment accorded to blindness control activities in the India. With the federal nature of the Indian Constitution, the States are largely independent in matters relating to health delivery. The Central Government’s responsibility consists mainly of policy making, planning, funding, guiding, assisting, evaluating and coordinating the work of state health ministries so that health services cover every part of the country and no state lags behind for want of these services. The NPCB is striving to enhance the capacity of health institutions, health personnel and the community at all levels to address issues under the programme. In the approved XI five-year plan period, schemes with existing/enhanced financial allocation are being implemented along with new initiatives to reduce blindness.

5. Examine any three of the following in about 150 words each.        12x3=36

(a) The impact of climate change on water resources in India.

Answer:

The impact of climate change on water resources in India is evident through erratic monsoon, more frequent floods and droughts, stronger cyclones and rivers changing their course frequently. The severity is also due to the prevailing more than 7000km of coastline.

The changed rainfall pattern has adversely affected ground water recharge, wetlands both coastal and terrestrial.  Climate change has resulted in melting of Himalayan glaciers. It has the potential of making the Himalayan Rivers swell first and then turning them into seasonal rivers, threatening the source of freshwater. It can also lead to salt water intrusion and threatening aquaculture and coastal agriculture. 

The impact has been severe also because, India is still an agricultural country with its large population being dependant on weather related livelihood through agriculture, forestry, pisciculture etc.

(b) Measures taken by the Indian government to combat piracy in the Indian Ocean.

Answer:
Indian government has used INS Talwar to foil several bids by pirates near the Gulf of Aden. Indian government is coordinating the anti piracy measures at the international level with China, European countries and with the Gulf countries.
Indian government has placed surveillance radars in countries like Maldives and Srilanka to secure the sea lanes in the Indian Ocean. It has signed agreements with Madagascar, Seychelles and Mauritius for anti piracy measures. Government has also taken measures in strengthening the coastal security by equipping and reforming the coast guards. However, incidents like unmanned vessel drifting in the ocean and reaching the coast of Mumbai have highlighted the holes in our coastal security which needs to be plugged.

Supreme Court has recently asked the Central Government to formulate separate piracy law for trying the pirates and to take care of the compensation to the victim’s family. Currently piracy is being dealt under the provisions of Indian Penal Code.
 
(c) The significance of counter-urbanisation in the improvement of metropolitan cities in India.

Answer:

Counter-urbanisation is a demographic and social process where people move from large urban areas or into rural areas, thereby leapfrogging the rural-urban fringe. It might mean daily commuting, but could also require lifestyle changes and the increased use of ICT (home working or teleworking). It is the process of migration of people from major urban areas to smaller urban settlements and rural areas.  Counter-urbanisation affects the layout of rural settlements. Modern housing estates locate of the edge of small settlements. Industrial units are sited on main roads leading into the settlement.

Counter urbanisation will reduce pressure on the metropolitan cities and its basic amenities like drinking water supply, sewage facilities, continuous supply of electricity, education facilities, etc as people move out due to following

(i) Increase in car ownership enabling their movement, growth in information technology (E-mail, faxes and video conferencing) meaning more people can work from home

(ii) Urban areas are becoming increasing unpleasant place to live. This is the result of pollution, crime and traffic congestion.

(iii) More people tend to move when they retire.

(iv) New business parks being developed on the edge of cities (on Greenfield sites) meaning people no longer have to travel to the city centre. People now prefer to live on the outskirts of the city to be near where they work.

(d) Problems specific to the denotified and nomadic tribes in India.

Answer:
Post Independence the Criminal Tribe Act 1871 was replaced; and criminal tribe nomenclature was replaced with denotified tribe (DNTs) which is still considered derogatory. They have been discriminated; British government included some of the tribes like Gonds, Ho and Santhals under this categorisation as they had rebelled against the British Raj.

A major challenge in the intervention comes due dispersed nature of the tribes and having a nomadic culture surviving on shifting cultivation. This results in health and educational services a challenging task to deliver. It also makes the implementation of nutritional initiative like addressing iodine deficiency a challenging task. Preservation of their culture, script, practices also get hampered due to the same reason. Two different opinions arise with regard to the reservation for the DNTs to raise their social and economic conditions. One view supports providing reservation within existing group of SCs, STs and OBCs while the other view supports creating a new group for the reservation of DNTs.

6. In the context of the freedom struggle, write short notes (not exceeding 50 words each) on the following:    5x3=15

(a) 'Benoy-Badal-Dinesh' martyrdom.

Answer:

On 8 December 1930, Benoy along with Dinesh chandra Gupta and Badal Gupta, dressed in European costume, entered the Writers' Building and shot dead Simpson, the Inspector General of Prisons, who was infamous for the brutal oppression on the prisoners. This inspired further revolutionary activities in Bengal. After Independence Dalhousie square was named B.B.D Bagh-after Benoy-Badal-Dinesh. 

(b) Bharat Naujavan sabha

Answer:

Bharat Naujavan Sabha was an association of Indian youths which was established at a convention held in April 1928 at the Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar. The aims of the Sabha were to create a youth wing of peasants and workers with a view to usher in revolution in the country and overthrow the British rule. Bhagat Singh was its secretary and principle organiser.

(c) 'Babbar Akali' movement

Answer:

The Babbar Akali movement, which emerged in the wake of the Akali Movement, and was an underground terrorist movement established in the Jalandhar Doab in 1921. Members fought pitched battles with police and committed acts of violence.

7. Comment on the following in not more than 50 words each:             5x6=30

(a) Phase-IV of the tiger monitoring programme in India.

Answer:

Phase-IV of the tiger monitoring programme by by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) and the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) means initiating intensive, annual monitoring of tigers at the tiger reserve level, across 41 protected areas in India. This programme is to estimate numbers of both tigers and their prey. This programme is planned to be commenced from November 2011.

(b) Why the Central Statistical Office has notified a new series of Consumer Price Index from this year?

Answer:

The Central Statistical Office has notified a new series of CPI with its base year of 2010 for rural, urban areas and for the nation as a whole. It will give a comprehensive picture of inflation at the national level for retail prices. Government also proposes to use it for giving dearness allowance for government employee in the seventh pay commission.

(c) Composition and functions of the National Executive Committee of the National Disaster Management Authority.

Answer:

The National Executive Committee (NEC) of the National Disaster Management Authority comprises the Union Home Secretary as the Chairperson, and the Secretaries to the GOI in the Ministries/Departments of Agriculture, Atomic Energy, Defence, Drinking Water Supply, Environment and Forests, Finance (Expenditure), Health, Power, Rural Development, Science and Technology, Space, Telecommunications, Urban Development, Water Resources and the Chief of the Integrated Defence Staff of the Chiefs of Staff Committee as members.

(d) The Bihar Special Courts Act, 2009 and why it has been in news recently?

Answer:

Bihar Special Courts Act, 2009 provides that the property of corrupt persons can be attached even when the probe is under way, if the authorised officer concludes that the acquisition of the property was the result of the offence committed by the accused. Bihar implemented it and some officials came under this Act. Its constitutional validity was questioned in Supreme Court which refused to stay this act.

(e) The Telecommunications Ministry’s proposed Spectrum Management Commission.

Answer:
Spectrum Management Commission is a new entity to manage and regulate spectrum allocation. The Commission will subsume Wireless Planning Coordination wing of the Department of Telecom and will get wider powers including dispute settlement, pricing and regulations related to spectrum. While the DoT will continue to be the licensor, all issues pertaining to spectrum allocation will be brought under Spectrum Management Commission.

(f) The Community-Led Total Sanitation (CLTS) approach to sanitation.

Answer:
CLTS is an innovative methodology for mobilising communities to completely eliminate open defecation (OD). Communities are facilitated to conduct their own appraisal and analysis of open defecation (OD) and take their own action to become ODF (open defecation free). CLTS focuses on the behavioural change needed to ensure real and sustainable improvements. It invests in community mobilisation instead of hardware, and shifting the focus from toilet construction for individual households to the creation of ’open defecation-free’ villages.

8. Attempt the following in not more than 50 words each.        5x4=20

(a) Distinguish either between the ‘Moatsu’ and ‘Yemshe’ festivals of Nagaland or the ‘Losar’ and ‘Khan’ festivals of Arunachal Pradesh.

Answer:

Moatsu Festival is celebrated in Nagaland by the Ao tribe. It is observed every year in the first week of May. During this Nagaland festival, a number of rituals are performed. After sowing the seeds, the Aos observe Moatsu Mong.

The Pochury Tribe celebrates their greatest festival, Yemshe in the month of October every year. During the Yemshe festival, the arrival of the new harvest is celebrated with full fun & fair. The Losar Festival also called as the New Year Festival and it is the most important festival celebrated in Tawang, Arunachal Pradesh. Losar is celebrated by the Monpas that forms the major portion of population in Tawang, Arunachal Pradesh.
In the Khan festival of Arunachal Pradesh, the social and cultural beliefs of the local tribes can be witnessed. Regardless the different casts and creed, the local tribes unite in the Khan celebration.

(b) Write a sentence each of any five of the following traditional theater forms:

(i) Bhand Pather: It is the traditional theatre form of Kashmir, which is a unique combination of dance, music and acting. Satire, wit and parody are preferred for inducing laughter.

(ii) Swang:
It is a popular folk dance-drama or folk theatre form in Rajasthan, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and Malwa region of Madhya Pradesh. Swang incorporates suitable theatrics and mimicry (or nakal) accompanied by song and dialogue. Swang theatre is
traditionally restricted to men, who also play the female roles.

(iii) Maach:
It is a traditional Hindi theatre form of Madhya Pradesh. It shares the secular nature and characteristics of other north Indian genres like Nautanki and Khyal. Based on religious, historical, romantic, or social themes, it was invented and developed by prominent artists like Guru Gopalji, Guru Balmukund, Kaluram Ustad, and Radhakrishan Ustad.

(iv) Bhaona:
It is a unique festival of Vaishnava theatrical performance in Assam. The performance is marked by a continuous shifting between the classical and the folk, the mundane and the spiritual, providing thousands of spectators a rare aesthetic experience.

(v) Mudiyettu:
It is ritualistic dance drama performed after the harvest of summer crops in Kerala. In 2010, Mudiyettu was included in the UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage Lists.

(vi) Dashavatar:
Dashavatar is the most developed theatre form of the Konkan and Goa regions. The performers personify the ten incarnations of Lord Vishnu-the god of preservation and creativity.

(c) What are the major different styles of unglazed pottery making in India?

Answer:

There are three different styles in unglazed pottery making in India. They are - the paper-thin, scrafito and highly polished. Black pottery is another famous form of unglazed pottery in Indian villages and it resembles the Harappan pottery style. In the paper thin pottery, the biscuit coloured pottery is decorated with incised patterns.

(d) List the classical dance forms of India as per the Sangeet Natak Akademy.

Answer:
Sangeet Natak Akademi currently confers classical status on nine Indian dance styles which are Bharatnatyam, Kathak, Gaudiya Nritya, Kathakali, Mohiniyattam, Oddisi, kuchipudi, Sattriya, and Manipuri.

9. Comment on following in not more than 50 words each:        5x5=25

(a) Nisarga-Runa technology of BARC.

Answer:

The Nisarga-Runa technology developed at BARC converts biodegradable solid waste into useful manure and methane. It can be deployed for the dual objectives of waste management as well as for livelihood creation among the urban underprivileged. The 'Nisargruna' technology adopts biphasic reactor system wherein the first reactor is operated under aerobic and thermophilic conditions. As a result of the first feature, the universal problem of odour from waste processing biogas plants is eliminated and the second feature leads to a faster process. Unlike conventional single phase digesters, which take 30-40 days, a 'Nisargruna' plant can digest organic solid waste between 18-22 days.

(b) The first aid that you can safely administer to a person standing next to you at the bus stop who suddenly faints.

Answer:

I would first take the person away from the crowd to an open and safe area. Then I would sprinkle some water on his/her face to bring him/her back to consciousness. If the person does not gain consciousness then mouth to mouth respiration and administering CPR can be considered as the next step. His/her family members or friends should be immediately informed about his/her ill health by a phone call from the contact details from the mobile phone or the purse of the person and can gather information on the person’s medical condition and then accordingly he/she can be taken for medical supervision.

(c) The Kaveri K-10 aero-engine.

Answer:

Kaveri K-10 engine is being developed to be used in the Light Combat Aircraft, Tejas. It is being developed in collaboration of French firm, Snecma.  It will have less weight and more reheat thrust to meet the requirements of the Indian Army.

(d) Molecular Breast Imaging (MBI) technology

Answer:
Molecular breast imaging (MBI) is three times more effective than mammograms, and far less costly than other nuclear-medicine imaging. Molecular Breast Imaging (MBI) uses a dedicated dual-head gamma camera and 99mTc-sestamibi in women having dense breast patterns and additional risk factors for breast cancer.

(e) E-governance initiatives by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)

Answer:

UPSC has taken the initiative for getting the forms of several examinations like civil services filled online. It also displays the status of the application form for every candidate on its website. UPSC publishes the syllabus and tentative schedules of various UPSC conducted examinations on its website helping students to plan in advance. UPSC also publishes the various court orders and notifications on the web site and information regarding the RTI petitions on its website.

10. Who are the following and why have they been in the news recently? (each answer should not exceed 20 words): 2x7=14

(a) Lieutenant Navdeep Singh

Answer:

Lieutenant Navdeep Singh laid down his life fighting terrorists during an anti-infiltration operation along LOC in Gurez Sector of north Kashmir.

(b) Rahim Fahimuddin Dagar

Answer:

He was an exponent of Dagar vani Dhrupad, which is one of the most pristine and richest forms of Indian classical music. He represented the 19th generation of Dagar Tradition.

(c) Lobsang Sangay
Answer:

He is the Tibetan Prime Minister in exile. He is a Harvard graduate and a political successor of Dalai Lama.

(d) P.R. Sreejesh

Answer:

P.R. Sreejesh is Hockey Goalkeeper in the Indian Hockey team. He is from Kerela.

(e) Nileema Mishra

Answer:

She is one of the Magsaysay Award winners for 2011.. She is a lender to the poorest in Maharashtra. She was recognised for her purpose-driven zeal to work tirelessly with villagers in Maharashtra.

(f) V.Tejeswini Bai

Answer:

Tejeswini is a Kabbadi player from Karnataka who has represented India from 2005 to 2010 and captained Indian team for four years.

(g) Aishwarya Narkar

Answer:

Aishwarya Narkar is a Marathi actress who also works in the Hindi TV serials. She has received National Film Award from the
President of India.

Wednesday, November 30, 2011

Child Welfare Programmes

 S.No.Child Welfare ProgrammesYear of BeginningObjectives/Description
 1 Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) 1975It is aimed at enhancing the health, nutrition and learning opportunities of infants, young children (O-6 years) and their mothers.
 2Creche Scheme for the children of working mothers2006Overall development of children, childhood protection, complete immunisation, awareness generation among parents on malnutrition, health and education.
 3 Reproductive and Child Health Programme 1951To provide quality Integrated and sustainable Primary Health Care services to the women in the reproductive age group and young children and special focus on family planning and Immunisation.
 4 Pulse Polio Immunization Programme  1995To eradicate poliomyelitis (polio) in India by vaccinating all children under the age of five years against polio virus.
 5Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan 2001All children in school, Education Guarantee Centre, Alternate School, ' Back-to-School' camp by 2003; all children complete five years of primary schooling by 2007 ; all children complete eight years of elementary schooling by 2010 ; focus on elementary education of satisfactory quality with emphasis on education for life ; bridge all gender and social category gaps at primary stage by 2007 and at elementary education level by 2010 ; universal retention by 2010
 6 Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalaya 2004To ensure access and quality education to the girls of disadvantaged groups of society by setting up residential schools with boarding facilities at elementary level.
 7 Mid-day meal Scheme 1995 Improving the nutritional status of children in classes I – VIII in Government, Local Body and Government aided schools, and EGS and AIE centres.Encouraging poor children, belonging to disadvantaged sections, to attend school more regularly and help them concentrate on classroom activities.
Providing nutritional support to children of primary stage in drought-affected areas during summer vacation.
 8 Integrated programme for Street Children 1993Provisions for shelter, nutrition, health care, sanitation and hygiene, safe drinking water, education and recreational facilities and protection against abuse and exploitation to destitute and neglected street children.

 9 The National Rural Health Mission2005Reduction in child and maternal mortality, universal access to public services for food and nutrition , sanitation and hygiene and universal access to public health care services with emphasis on services addressing women's and children's health universal immunization, etc.

Anti Poverty Programmes

 S.No.Anti Poverty ProgrammesYear of Beginning Objective/Description
 1 Antodaya Yojana1977 To make the poorest families of the village economically independent (only in Rajasthan)
 2Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY)1999Assistance is given to the poor families living below the poverty line in rural areas for taking up self employment.
 4 Sampoorna Gramin Rozgar Yojana (SGRY)2001Providing gainful employment for the rural poor.
 6 Employment Assurance Scheme1993To provide gainful employment during the lean agricultural season in manual work to all able bodied adults in rural areas who are in need and desirous of work, but can not find it..
 7 Pradhanmantri Gramodaya Yojana (PMGY)2000 Focus on village level development in 5 critical areas, i.e. primary health, primary education, housing, rural roads and drinking water and nutrition with the overall objective of improving the quality of life of people in rural areas. 
 8 National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREGS)2006To provide legal guarantee for 100 days of wage employment to every household in the rural areas of the country each year, To combine the twin goals of providing employment and
asset creation in rural areas
 9Swarnajayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana (SJRY)1997It seeks to provide employment to the urban unemployed lying below poverty line and educate upto IX standard through encouraging the setting up of self employment ventures or provision of wage employment.
 10 Antidaya Anna Yojana2000It aims at providing food securities to poor families.
 11National Housing Bank Voluntary Deposit Scheme1991To utilize black money for constructing low cost housing for the poor.
 12Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP)1980All Round development of the rural poor through a program of asset endowment for self employment.
 13Development of Women and Chidren in Rural Areas (DWCRA)1982To provide suitable opportunities of self employment to the women belonging to the rural families who are living below the poverty line.
 14National Social Assistance Programme1995To assist people living below the poverty line.
 15Jan Shree Bima Yojana2000Providing insurance security to people below poverty line.
 16Jai Prakash Narayan Rojgar Guarantee YojanaProposed in 2002-03 budgetEmployment Guarantee in most poor districts.
 17Shiksha Sahyog Yojana2001Education of Children below poverty line.

World's First Test Tube Eld's Deer born at Khao Kheow Zoo in Thailand

The first Eld’s deer was born via in vitro fertilization in Thailand. The researchers at the Smithsonian Conservation Biology Institute (SCBI) collected eggs, inseminated in vitro with thawed semen to produce embryos and transferred the embryos to a surrogate mother. As a result, a fawn was born on 17 October 2011 at the Khao Kheow Open Zoo in Thailand. The Smithsonian Conservation Biology Institute plays a key role in the Smithsonian’s global efforts to conserve species and train future generations of conservationists. Eld's Deer is also known as the Thamin or Brow-antlered Deer. It is an endangered species of deer indigenous to southeastern Asia.

Delhi State Government launched Kishori Scheme for Adolescent Girls

Delhi state government on 28 November 2011 launched Kishori Scheme under which sanitary napkins would be distributed to adolescent girls. Delhi becomes the first state in India to reach out to as many as 7.5 lakh girls with this scheme, which aims to promote menstrual hygiene among these girls. Under the Kishori Scheme, sanitary scheme will be provided to girls every month in their school. The total expenditure on the scheme would be 1.05 crore rupees. The scheme would be implemented in 729 schools from 1 December 2011 and it would cover girls studying from class VI to class XII.

Tuesday, November 29, 2011

Impact of Global Warming on Forests

A report titled published in 2010 under the aegis of the Indian Network on Climate Change Assessment (INCCA), has assessed impacts of climate change on four eco-sensitive regions namely; Himalayan, Coastal, North-Eastern and Western Ghats. The assessment result is presented for forest grid which indicates that 55 (56%) out of 98 grids in the Himalayan region, 29 (30%) out of the 96 grids in the entire Coastal region, 6(8%) out of 73 grids of the North-Eastern region and 10 (18%) out of 54 grids in the Western Ghats region are projected to undergo change. As per the report, the forest ecosystems of the Himalayan region are most vulnerable to climate change. The Coastal regions and Western Ghats are moderately vulnerable to climate change.

Monday, November 21, 2011

CSAT E-BOOKS FREE DOWNLOAD


                                           

Friday, November 18, 2011

Uttarakhand High Court Subordinate Civil Court Clerical Cadre Service Exam., 2011


(Exam Held on 28-8-2011)

1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Govind National Park
(b) Sonanadi Wild Life Sanctuary
(c) Tiger fall
(d) Gorakhnath Ki Dhuni
List-II
1. Dehradun
2. Champawat
3. Pauri Garhwal
4. Uttarkashi
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 1 2 3 4
Ans : (B)

2. Which National Highway does not pass through Distt. Udham Singh Nagar ?
(A) NH-125
(B) NH-74
(C) NH-87
(D) NH-123
Ans : (B)

3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Kotgarhi Devi
(b) Pataal Rudreshwar
(c) Raichand Devta
(d) Dunagiri
List-II
1. Pithoragarh
2. Champawat
3. Bageshwar
4. Almora
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 1 4 3
Ans : (C)


4. ‘Indian Institute of Management’ IIM in Uttarakhand is situated—
(A) Srinagar
(B) Dehradun
(C) Nainital
(D) Kashipur (U.S. Nagar)
Ans : (D)

5. Match List-I and II—
List-I (Hill)
(a) Nanda Devi
(b) Panchachuli
(c) Bhagirathi
(d) Trishul
List-II (Place)
1. Uttarkashi
2. Chamoli
3. Pithoragarh
4. Almora
Code :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 3 4
Ans : (A)

6. Where is Industrial Taxological Research Centre situated ?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Roorkee
(C) Nainital
(D) Ranikhet
Ans : (A)

7. An electric bulb has a filament made of—
(A) Copper
(B) Iron
(C) Lead
(D) Tungsten
Ans : (D)

8. The Nainital Lake was discovered by (in 1841)—
(A) Shankaracharya
(B) Pradhumna Shah
(C) P. Bairan
(D) Frank Smith
Ans : (A)

9. Stainless steel contains—
(A) Chromium, Nickel, Iron and Carbon
(B) Nickel, Iron and Carbon
(C) Chromium, Iron and Carbon
(D) Iron and Carbon only
Ans : (A)

10. Where is the BHEL (Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited) situated ?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Haridwar
(C) U. S. Nagar
(D) Pauri
Ans : (B)

11. Where is National Lal Bahadur Shastri Academy of Administration situated ?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Nainital
(C) Mussoorie
(D) Haridwar
Ans : (C)

12. Mussoorie wild life sanctuary is established in—
(A) 1983
(B) 1993
(C) 1971
(D) 2001
Ans : (B)

13. Kedarnath wild life sanctuary is situated at—
(A) Almora
(B) Nainital
(C) Uttarkashi
(D) Chamoli
Ans : (D)

14. Where is Udaishankar Dance Academy situated ?
(A) Almora
(B) Dehradun
(C) Srinagar
(D) Haridwar
Ans : (A)

15. Most of the weather phenomenon takes place in the—
(A) Photosphere
(B) Exosphere
(C) Stratosphere
(D) Troposphere
Ans : (D)

16. Chemically, dry ice is—
(A) Solid Carbondioxide
(B) Solid Sulphurdioxide
(C) Ice formed from distilled water
(D) Ice kept at Sub-zero temperature
Ans : (A)

17. Who is the first Chairman of Public Service Commission of Uttarakhand ?
(A) N.P. Nawani
(B) K. Arya
(C) Ajay Vikram Singh
(D) Ashok Kant Saran
Ans : (A)

18. Where is the Tiffin top situated ?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Nainital
(C) Mumbai
(D) Roorkee
Ans : (B)

19. The planet nearest to sun is—
(A) Mars
(B) Jupiter
(C) Mercury
(D) Saturn
Ans : (C)

20. Excessive Consumption of alcoholic drinks causes damage to—
(A) Lungs
(B) Liver
(C) Kidney
(D) Heart
Ans : (B)

21. How many colour are there in white light ?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans : (B)

22. Corbett National Park aims mainly on protection of which animal ?
(A) Elephant
(B) Rhinoceros
(C) Panther
(D) Tiger
Ans : (D)

23. How many districts touch the international boundary in Uttarakhand ?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 6
Ans : (C)

24. Which is the oldest Veda ?
(A) Yajurveda
(B) Rigveda
(C) Samveda
(D) Atharvaveda
Ans : (B)

25. Average blood-pressure of human is—
(A) 60/100
(B) 20/80
(C) 60/140
(D) 120/80
Ans : (D)

26. The number of chromosomes in human beings is—
(A) 36
(B) 46
(C) 56
(D) 26
Ans : (B)

27. The branch of Science that deals with tumors is known as—
(A) Serology
(B) Oncology
(C) Chromology
(D) Urology
Ans : (B)

28. What line connects the point on a map that receive equal amount of rainfall ?
(A) Isobar
(B) Isohel
(C) Isotherm
(D) Isohyet
Ans : (D)

29. Which Indian born physicist invented the ‘Optical Fibre’ ?
(A) C. V. Raman
(B) Satyendra Nath Bose
(C) Homi J. Bhabha
(D) Narinder Singh Kapany
Ans : (D)

30. ‘Ace’, ‘Double fault’, ‘Smash’, ‘Second Service’ and‘Gamepoint’ terms are related with which sport ?
(A) Tennis
(B) Squash
(C) Table Tennis
(D) Badminton
Ans : (A)

31. Who authored ancient Sanskrit plays ‘Malti Madhava’, ‘Mahavir-Charita’ and Uttar Ramcharita ?
(A) Kalidas
(B) Bhavabhuti
(C) Banabhatta
(D) Vishakhadatta
Ans : (B)

32. Which Indian lady writer authored Onasis award winning play ‘Harvest’, highlighting the controversial issue of Organ trading in poverty stricken areas ?
(A) Kiran Desai
(B) Jhumpa Lahiri
(C) Manjula Padmanabhan
(D) Arundhati Roy
Ans : (C)

33. Who was the first person to calculate the height of the Mount Everest ?
(A) Andrew Waugh
(B) George Everest
(C) Nain Singh Rawat
(D) Radhanath Sikdar
Ans : (D)

34. The transfer of Capital of British Indian from Calcutta to Delhi was effected during the period of—
(A) Lord Minto
(B) Lord Hardinge
(C) Lord Chelmsford
(D) Lord Reading
Ans : (B)

35. The scheme which identify creative children within the age group of 5 to 16 years in creative art creative performance, creative scientific innovations and creative writing ?
(A) Bal Shree Scheme
(B) Bal Bodh
(C) Bal Sadan
(D) Bal Shiksha
Ans : (A)

36. The right to Education provides free and compulsory education of all chidren in the age-group of 6 to 14 years. This right is inserted to which article of the Constitution ?
(A) Article-21
(B) Article-24
(C) Article-19
(D) Article-14
Ans : (A)

37. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) is the Research and developing wing of which Ministry under Government of India ?
(A) Ministry of Home affairs
(B) Ministry of defence
(C) Ministry of Agriculture
(D) Ministry of Environment
Ans : (B)

38. Which one of the following is wrongly matched ?
(A) Central Potato Research Institute — Shimla
(B) Archaelogical Survey of India — Kolkata
(C) Indian Institute of Petroleum — Dehradun
(D) National Dairy Research Institute — Panipat
Ans : (D)

39. Laprosy is caused by—
(A) Pasteurella pestis
(B) Mycobacterium
(C) Clostridium
(D) Vibrio
Ans : (A)

40. Bacteria were first discovered by—
(A) Robert Koch
(B) L. Pasteur
(C) Robert Hooke
(D) A. Von Leuwenhoek
Ans : (D)

41. Which is known as evening star ?
(A) Cirrus
(B) Saturn
(C) Uranus
(D) Venus
Ans : (D)

42. ‘Horse Latitude’ related to—
(A) Thermal Belt
(B) Sea Route
(C) Pressure Belt
(D) Eco Belt
Ans : (B)

43. Which one of the following layers have maximum density ?
(A) Exosphere
(B) Ionosphere
(C) Stratosphere
(D) Troposphere
Ans : (B)

44. The name of the founder of the Red Cross is—
(A) Henry Dunant
(B) Baden Powell
(C) Frederick Passey
(D) U-Thant
Ans : (B)

45. The city of Rome is situated on the bank of river—
(A) Vistula
(B) Avon
(C) Rhine
(D) Tiber
Ans : (D)

46. Vinegar is produced from—
(A) Ethanoic Acid
(B) Valeric Acid
(C) Methanoic Acid
(D) Butanoic Acid
Ans : (C)

47. The famous temple of ‘Neelkhanth Mahadev’ is situated in which district ?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Haridwar
(C) Pauri Garhwal
(D) Rudraprayag
Ans : (B)

48. Who is known as ‘Gandhi of Uttarakhand’ ?
(A) Late Indramani Badoni
(B) Sridev Suman
(C) Sunderlal Bahuguna
(D) Chandi Prasad Bhatt
Ans : (A)

49. Who is named as ‘Jhansi Ki Rani’ in the history of Garhwal ?
(A) Teelu Rauteli
(B) Maharani Gularia
(C) Jiarani
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

50. Who is the first Indian whose name is entered in ‘Guinese Book of World Records’ on making world record in shorthand ?
(A) Shri Kishan Chandra Joshi
(B) Dr. Gopal Das Bisht
(C) Shri Badri Dutt Pandey
(D) Dr. Harshavanti Bisht
Ans : (B)

51. When was the Nehru Institute of Mountaineering, Uttarkashi established ?
(A) 14 November, 1951
(B) 14 November, 1965
(C) 9 November, 2000
(D) 9 November, 1991
Ans : (B)

52. The confluence of Alaknanda and Bhagirathi river is—
(A) Devprayag
(B) Rudraprayag
(C) Nandprayag
(D) Karnaprayag
Ans : (A)

53. L.P.G. mainly contains—
(A) Methane
(B) Methane and Ethane
(C) Hydrogen, Methane and Ethane
(D) Butane and Propane
Ans : (D)

54. ‘Fire Temple’ is the worship place of which religion ?
(A) Christianity
(B) Yahudi
(C) Muslim
(D) Parsi
Ans : (B)

55. Where in 1943, Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose announced the temporary Government for the freedom of India ?
(A) Colombo
(B) Manila
(C) Singapore
(D) Rangoon
Ans : (C)

56. Which one is not one of the four Vedas ?
(A) Rigveda
(B) Samveda
(C) Atharvaveda
(D) Ayurveda
Ans : (D)

57. Name of Shivaji’s mother—
(A) Ahilya Bai
(B) Jodhabai
(C) Jeeja Bai
(D) Panna Bai
Ans : (C)

58. Which city is called ‘City of Lakes’ ?
(A) Udaipur
(B) Jabalpur
(C) Jammu
(D) Mumbai
Ans : (A)

59. Which out of the following rivers terminates in the Arabian Sea ?
(A) Krishna
(B) Indus
(C) Yamuna
(D) Gomti
Ans : (B)

60. Who wrote ‘Geetanjali’ ?
(A) Sharat Chandra
(B) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(C) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(D) Bankim Chandra Chaterjee
Ans : (C)

61. ‘Uber Cup’ is related to which game ?
(A) Baseball
(B) Badminton
(C) Football
(D) Basket Ball
Ans : (B)

62. Veer Chandra Singh Garhwali is related to—
(A) Kakori-Case
(B) Meerut-Armed Revolt
(C) Chauri-Chaura Case
(D) Peshwar Military Revolt
Ans : (D)

63. Which of the following is/are treated as artificial currency ?
(A) ADR
(B) GDR
(C) SDR
(D) Both ADR and SDR
Ans : (C)

64. In India, the interest rate on saving accounts in all the nationalized commercial banks is fixed by—
(A) Union Ministry of Finance
(B) Union Finance Commission
(C) Indian Banks Association
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

65. What does S and P 500 relate to ?
(A) Super Computer
(B) A new technique in e-business
(C) A new technique in bridge building
(D) A index of stock of large companies
Ans : (D)

66. Gilt-edged market means—
(A) Bullion market
(B) Market of Government Securities
(C) Markets of Guns
(D) Market of Pure metals
Ans : (B)

67. Which one of the following ports of India handles the highest tonnage of import cargo ?
(A) Calcutta
(B) Kandla
(C) Mumbai
(D) Visakhapatnam
Ans : (C)

68. ‘Chapchar Kut’ festival is celebrated in—
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Assam
(C) Mizoram
(D) Sikkim
Ans : (C)

69. First Indian actress to be awarded ‘Padamshri’—
(A) Smita Patil
(B) Nargis Dutt
(C) Meena Kumari
(D) Madhubala
Ans : (B)

70. ‘Charak Sanhita’ is related to which of the following ?
(A) Art
(B) Law
(C) Adminstration of State
(D) Medicine
Ans : (D)

71. During which five year plan was the Emergency clamped, new election took place and Janta Party was elected ?
(A) Third
(B) Fourth
(C) Fifth
(D) Sixth
Ans : (C)

72. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within—
(A) 1 month
(B) 3 months
(C) 6 months
(D) 1 year
Ans : (C)

73. Who was the speaker of the first Lok Sabha ?
(A) Hukum Singh
(B) G. V. Mavalankar
(C) K.M. Munshi
(D) U.N. Dhebar
Ans : (B)

74. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the—
(A) Lok Sabha alone
(B) Either House of Parliament
(C) Joint Sitting of Parliament
(D) Rajya Sabha Alone
Ans : (D)

75. The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged to the—
(A) Consolidated Fund of India
(B) Consolidated Fund of the State
(C) Contingency Fund of India
(D) Contingency Fund of the State
Ans : (B)

76. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the constitution ?
(A) Right to freedom of religion
(B) Right to property
(C) Right to equality
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Ans : (D)

77. The state which has the largest number of seats reserved for the scheduled tribes in Lok Sabha is—
(A) Bihar
(B) Gujarat
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans : (D)

78. Which one among the following has the highest energy ?
(A) Blue light
(B) Green light
(C) Red light
(D) Yellow light
Ans : (A)

79. The marine animal called dugong which is vulnerable to extinction is a/an—
(A) Amphibian
(B) Bony fish
(C) Shark
(D) Mammal
Ans : (D)

80. In making the saffron spice, which one of the following parts of the plant is used ?
(A) Leaf
(B) Petal
(C) Sepal
(D) Stigma
Ans : (D)

81. The full name of EONR is—
(A) East Organisation for North Region
(B) European Organisation for Nuclear Research
(C) English Organisation for Nuclear Research
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

82. In the context of alternative sources of energy, Ethanol as a viable bio-fuel can be obtained from—
(A) Potato
(B) Rice
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Wheat
Ans : (C)

83. In the following matching which one of them does not match ?
(A) Baki Etihas—Badal Sarkar
(B) Sita Swayamber—Vishnu Das Bhave
(C) Yayati—Girish Karnad
(D) Gidha—Jabar Patel
Ans : (D)

84. The ‘Instrument of Instructions’ contained in the Government of India Act, 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as—
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principle of State Policy
(C) Extent of executive power of State
(D) Conduct of business of the Government of India
Ans : (B)

85. Reserve Bank of India was Established in—
(A) 1929
(B) 1942
(C) 1935
(D) 1947
Ans : (C)

86. Hereditary information in animals and plants is stored in—
(A) DNA
(B) RNA
(C) Ribosomes
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

87. Point out the wrong match—
(A) Plague — Rat
(B) Rabies — Dog
(C) Polio — Monkey
(D) Tapeworm — Pig
Ans : (C)

88. Diabetes is caused due to lack of—
(A) Sugar
(B) Insulin
(C) Calcium
(D) Iron
Ans : (B)

89. The satellite launching center in India is located at—
(A) Thumba
(B) Bangalore
(C) Sri Harikota
(D) Trombay
Ans : (C)

90. The Indian Institute of Remote Sensing is located in—
(A) Nainital
(B) Dehradun
(C) Haridwar
(D) Delhi
Ans : (B)

91. Central Building Reserach Institute is located at—
(A) Lucknow
(B) Varanasi
(C) Roorkee
(D) Chennai
Ans : (C)

92. Optical fiber are used in—
(A) CAT Scans
(B) X-ray photos
(C) Ultrasonic Scans
(D) Endoscopy
Ans : (A)

93. The concept of carbon credit is originated from which one of the following ?
(A) Earth Summit, Rio-de Janerio
(B) Kyoto Protocol
(C) Montreal Protocol
(D) G-8, Summit Helligendamm
Ans : (B)

94. Who is known as ‘Missile Man of India’ ?
(A) Arjun Singh
(B) Dr. C. V. Raman
(C) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(D) H.J. Bhabha
Ans : (C)

95. The largest gland of body is—
(A) Liver
(B) Pancreas
(C) Pituitary
(D) Adrenal
Ans : (A)

96. Cryogenic Engine is used in—
(A) Sub-marine
(B) Glider
(C) Aeroplane
(D) Satellite Launch Vehicle
Ans : (D)

97. On which of the following rivers Hirakund Dam is built ?
(A) Godawari
(B) Ganga
(C) Narmada
(D) Mahanadi
Ans : (D)

98. Kaziranga Sanctuary is for the protection of—
(A) Birds
(B) Tiger
(C) Rhinoceros
(D) Elephant
Ans : (C)

99. Pt. Ravishankar is an exponent of—
(A) Sitar
(B) Sarod
(C) Tabla
(D) Flute
Ans : (A)

100. The Eiffel Tower is situated at—
(A) London
(B) Berlin
(C) Paris
(D) Washington
Ans : (C)

101. The second largest delta is on the river of—
(A) Narmada
(B) Krishna
(C) Brahamputra
(D) Godawari
Ans : (B)

102. Volume of blood in normal body is—
(A) 3-4 litre
(B) 10-12 litre
(C) 8-10 litre
(D) 5-6 litre
Ans : (D)

103. ‘Lord Buddha’ was born at—
(A) Vaishali
(B) Lumbini
(C) Kapilvastu
(D) Patliputra
Ans : (B)

104. Who is known as ‘Father of Computer’ ?
(A) Blaze Pascal
(B) Charles Bavage
(C) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(D) Homi Bhabha
Ans : (B)

105. Who is known as ‘Lady with the lamp’ ?
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Jone of Arc
(C) Mother Teresa
(D) Florence Nightingale
Ans : (D)

106. ‘Garba Dance’ is associated with which state?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Gujarat
(D) Orissa
Ans : (C)

107. ‘Alfred Noble’ is known for—
(A) Microphone
(B) Type-writer
(C) Dynamite
(D) Gramophone
Ans : (C)

108. ‘World Environment Day’ is celebrated on which date ?
(A) 5th June
(B) 2nd October
(C) 10th November
(D) 19th November
Ans : (A)

109. Jim Corebett National Park was established in the year—
(A) 1936
(B) 1947
(C) 1982
(D) 1957
Ans : (A)

110. ‘Project Tiger’ was started in the year—
(A) 1972
(B) 1973
(C) 1982
(D) 1990
Ans : (B)

111. Normal blood sugar level in human is—
(A) 80-100 mg/100 ml of blood
(B) 50-80 mg/100 ml of blood
(C) 110-170 mg/100 ml of blood
(D) 115-140 mg/100 ml of blood
Ans : (A)

112. The United Nations Organisation came into existence in—
(A) 1946
(B) 1945
(C) 1947
(D) 1950
Ans : (B)

113. The headquarters of International Labour Organisation is located in—
(A) Geneva
(B) The Hague
(C) New York
(D) Rome
Ans : (A)

114. ‘Dar-es-Salaam’ is capital of—
(A) Kenya
(B) Tanzania
(C) Japan
(D) Israel
Ans : (B)

115. ‘Kyat’ is the currency of—
(A) Myanmar
(B) Saudi Arabia
(C) Japan
(D) Libya
Ans : (A)

116. Who is called the ‘Grand Old Man of India’?
(A) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) Dadabhai Nauroji
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans : (C)

117. Mark the incorrect pair—
(A) Frontier Gandhi—Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(B) Deshbandhu—Chitranjan Dass
(C) Deenbandhu—C.F. Andrews
(D) Lok Nayak—Jai Prakash
Ans : (A)

118. Article-370 of the Indian Constitution is related to—
(A) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Sikkim
(C) Punjab
(D) Assam
Ans : (A)

119. The minimum age required for an Indian citizen to become a member of the Lok Sabha is—
(A) 21 years
(B) 25 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 35 years
Ans : (B)

120. What is the principle by which is cooling system (Radiator) in a motor car works ?
(A) Conduction only
(B) Convection only
(C) Radiation only
(D) Both conduction and radiation
Ans : (D)

121. Which among the following do/does not belong/belongs to the GSM family of wireless technology ?
(A) EDGE
(B) DSI
(C) LTE
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

122. Which one of the following types of waves are used in a night vision apparatus ?
(A) Radio wave
(B) Microwave
(C) IR wave
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

123. Which one of the following is used as an explosive ?
(A) Phosphorous Trichloride
(B) Mercuric Oxide
(C) Graphite
(D) Nitroglycerine
Ans : (D)

124. Consider the following—
1. Camphor
2. Chicory
3. Vanilla
Which of the above is/are plant product(s)?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (D)

125. In the context of Indian wildlife, the flying fox is a—
(A) Bat
(B) Kite
(C) Stork
(D) Vulture
Ans : (A)

126. The main chemical substance present in the bones and teeth of animal is—
(A) Sodium Chloride
(B) Sugar
(C) Calcium Phosphate
(D) Calcium Sulphate
Ans : (C)

127. What is the colour of ‘Black Box’ of an aeroplane ?
(A) Black
(B) Red
(C) Violet
(D) Orange
Ans : (D)

128. ‘Foot and Mouth Disease’ is found in—
(A) Cattles and sheep
(B) Cattles and pigs
(C) Sheep and goats
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

129. In Computer terminology CD means—
(A) Compact disc
(B) Compressed disc
(C) Computerised data
(D) Compressed data
Ans : (A)

130. ‘Alzeheimer Disease’ effects which organ of the body ?
(A) Ear
(B) Brain
(C) Eye
(D) Abdomen
Ans : (B)

131. Main Constituent of honey is—
(A) Glucose
(B) Sucrose
(C) Maltose
(D) Fructose
Ans : (D)

132. Which of the following is the richest source of Vitamin C ?
(A) Carrot
(B) Guava
(C) Mango
(D) Orange
Ans : (B)

133. If a potato is placed on a pure paper plate which is white and unprinted and put in a microwave oven. The potato heat up the paper plate does not. This is because—
(A) Potato is mainly made up of starch whereas paper is mainly made up of cellulose
(B) Potato contains water whereas paper does not contains water
(C) Potato transmits microwaves whereas paper reflects microwaves
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

134. ‘Swaraj is my Birth-Right’ who gave this slogan ?
(A) Subhash Chandra Bose
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(D) Jawahar Lal Nehru
Ans : (B)

135. In India ‘Silicon Valley’ is situated in—
(A) Madras (Chennai)
(B) Mumbai
(C) Bangalore (Bengaluru)
(D) Kolkata
Ans : (C)

136. ‘Chilli Saltpetre’ is associated with—
(A) Sodium Nitrate
(B) Cupric Chloride
(C) Potassium Nitrate
(D) Sodium Chloride
Ans : (A)

137. The drug ‘Quinine’ is obtained from which plant ?
(A) Cannabis Plant
(B) Cinchona Plant
(C) Tulsi Plant
(D) Sunflower plant
Ans : (B)

138. Who invented ‘Television’ ?
(A) Edison
(B) Galelio
(C) Baired
(D) Franklin
Ans : (C)

139. Which of the following instrument is used to measure intensity of sun-rays ?
(A) Astrometer
(B) Crescograph
(C) Acteometer
(D) Barometer
Ans : (A)

140. Which of the following is the highest mountain peak of Uttarakhand ?
(A) Nandadevi
(B) Chaukhambha
(C) Kamet
(D) Mount Everest
Ans : (A)

Sunday, November 13, 2011

U.P. P.C.S. Combined Lower Subordinate (Pre.) Exam Paper


Indian History
(Exam Held on 25-5-2008)



1. The officer responsible for the safe custody of land records during the Gupta period was known as—
(A) Dhruvadhikarana
(B) Karanika
(C) Samaharta
(D) Shaulkika
Ans : (B)

2. The Prakrit text Gaudavaho describes the deeds of—
(A) Bhaskaravarman
(B) Isanavarman
(C) Sasanka
(D) Yasovarman
Ans : (D)

3. Which of the following refers to ‘Pushyabhuti’ as the founder of the Vardhana dynasty ?
(A) Kadambari
(B) Harshacharita
(C) Banskhera Inscription of Harsha
(D) Yuan-Chwang
Ans : (B)

4. The first Gupta ruler to assume the title of the ‘Maharajadhiraja’ was—
(A) Srigupta
(B) Chandragupta I
(C) Samudragupta
(D) Ghatotkacha
Ans : (B)

5. Which one of the following statements about Chinese pilgrim Fa-Hien’s travel in India is not correct?
(A) He came to India during the reign of Chandragupta II
(B) His object was to visit the holy places of Buddhism
(C) He came by the sea route
(D) He visited whole India and went back to his country by the land route
Ans : (C)

6. Which was the first work to recognise the payment of officers by grants of land ?
(A) Kautilya’s Arthasastra
(B) Indica of Megasthenese
(C) Manusmriti
(D) Harsacharita of Bana
Ans : (C)

7. Below are given the pairs of names of the Dharmashastra-writers and their patrons. Indicate the incorrect match—
(A) Ballalasena – Dharmapala
(B) Hemadri – Yadava Mahadeva
(C) Laxmidhara – Govindachandra Gahadawala
(D) Mitra Misra – Virasinha Bundela
Ans : (A)

8. Who among the following was celebrated with the title of ‘Gangai-Konda’ ?
(A) Rajaraja I
(B) Rajendra I
(C) Mahendravarman I
(D) Kulottunga I
Ans : (B)

9. Which Chola emperor received a letter on golden leaves from the Burmese king Kyanzittha ?
(A) Rajaraja I
(B) Rajendra I
(C) Kulottunga I
(D) Rajadhiraja I
Ans : (C)

10. Who among the following boldly stood for the sacrificial vedic tradition and opposed the theory of Sanyasa ?
(A) Kumarila
(B) Ramanuja
(C) Gaudapada
(D) Yamunacharya
Ans : (A)

11. In the case of a man dying without a son, whom Yajnavalkya places first in order of succession ?
(A) Wife
(B) Daughters
(C) Parents
(D) Brothers
Ans : (A)

12. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given
below—
Assertion (A) : The Gahadawalas had friendly relations with the Cholas.
Reason (R) : A fragmentary Gahadawala inscription has been found incised below an inscription of Kulottunga I.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are ture, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

13. Who among the following Europeans was first to come to India to establish trade relations with their country ?
(A) Dutch
(B) British
(C) Portuguese
(D) French
Ans : (C)

14. Which of the following gives the administrative divisions of the chola kingdom in the correct descending order ?
(A) Mandalam, Valanadu, Kurram
(B) Mandalam, Nadu, Kottam
(C) Kurram, Nadu, Kottam
(D) Nadu, Kurram, Taniyur
Ans : (C)

15. Which one of the following was the primary village assembly in the chola village administration ?
(A) Nadu
(B) Sabha
(C) Ur
(D) Mahasabha
Ans : (C)

16. Which one of the following states was a milch-cow for the British ?
(A) Hydrabad
(B) Punjab
(C) Mysore
(D) Avadh
Ans : (D)

17. Match the authors with their books—
(a) Subramanya Bharti
(b) Bhai Vir Singh
(c) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(d) Michael Madhusudan Dutt
1. Gitanjali
2. Meghnad Badh Kavya
3. Rana Surat Singh
4. Kuyil Pattu
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 4 2 1 3
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (C)

18. “The emergence of British power in India is from the battle of Buxar.” Who made this statement ?
(A) Sir Stephen
(B) Ramsay Muir
(C) Dr. K. K. Datta
(D) Dr. R. C. Majumdar
Ans : (B)

19. In 1757 Siraj-ud-Daulah attacked British factory at—
(A) Dhaka
(B) Calcutta
(C) Kasimbazar
(D) Murshidabad
Ans : (B)

20. Which Governor of Madras presidency made treaty of Mangalore with Tipu ?
(A) Eyercoote
(B) Stephenson
(C) Wellesely
(D) Lord Macartany
Ans : (D)

21. What was the bone of contention between Nizam Ali, the ruler of Hyderabad and the English ?
(A) Masulipatanam
(B) Karnataka
(C) The Sarkar of Guntur
(D) The Northern Sarkars
Ans : (C)

22. The statement “we have crippled our enemy without making our friends too formidable.” is associated with—
(A) Fourth Anglo-Mysore war
(B) Third Anglo-Mysore war
(C) Second Anglo-Mysore war
(D) First Anglo-Mysore war
Ans : (B)

23. Who among the following Mughal emperors, granted permission to trade free of tax in the territories of Bengal, Hyderabad and Gujarat to the British ?
(A) Muhammad Shah
(B) Aurangzeb
(C) Bahadur Shah
(D) Farrukh Siyar
Ans : (D)

24. Where did the British East India Company open its first factory in India ?
(A) Masulipatanam
(B) Surat
(C) Bharuch
(D) Mumbai
Ans : (B)

25. The Whitley commission was concerned with—
(A) Labour
(B) Education
(C) Public Health
(D) Reorganisation of civil services
Ans : (A)

26. Match the following treaties with the years of their conclusion—
(a) Treaty of Srirangapatnam
(b) Treaty of Sangoli
(c) Treaty of Manglore
(d) Treaty of Rajghat
1. 1792 2. 1806
3. 1816 4. 1784
Find the correct answer from code given below—
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 1 3 4 2
Ans : (D)

27. Whom did Sir Charles Napier replace as British Resident of Sindh ?
(A) Alexander Burnier
(B) James Outram
(C) Sir John Karne
(D) Sir Eyre Coote
Ans : (B)

28. When was the East India Company brought under the parliamentary control ?
(A) 1773
(B) 1784
(C) 1793
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

29. Which one of the following Acts created ‘Board of control’ ?
(A) Regulating Act, 1773
(B) Pitt’s India Act, 1784
(C) Act of 1813
(D) Act of 1833
Ans : (B)

30. Which one of the following historians has written about the nature of the movement of 1857 that “It was neither first nor national nor a war of independence.” ?
(A) T. R. Holmes
(B) R. C. Majumdar
(C) S. B. Chaudhuri
(D) G. B. Mallison
Ans : (B)

31. Which one of the following pairs
is not correctly matched ?
(A) Jhansi — Laxmi Bai
(B) Gwalior — Tatya Tope
(C) Kanpur — Nana Saheb
(D) Allahabad — Kunwar Singh
Ans : (D)

32. The official historian of the movement of 1857 was—
(A) S. N. Sen
(B) R. C. Majumdar
(C) Tarachand
(D) V. D. Savarkar
Ans : (A)

33. Match the following associations with their presidents—
(a) British Indian Association, 1851
(b) Deccan Association, 1852
(c) Bombay Association, 1852
(d) British Indian Madras Association, 1850
1. Raja Radhakant Dev
2. Gopal Hari Deshmukh
3. C. Y. Mudaliar
4. Jamshedji Jijabhai
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 1 2 4 3
Ans : (D)

34. Who had chaired the Indian Education commission in 1882 ?
(A) Macaulay
(B) Sadler
(C) W. W. Hunter
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

35. Who was the founder of Seva Sadan in Bombay ?
(A) Baharamji Malabari
(B) Shiva Narrain Agnihotri
(C) R. G. Bhandarkar
(D) B. K. Jayakar
Ans : (A)

36. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using codes given below—
List-I
(a) Laxmi Bai
(b) Tatya Tope
(c) Nana Saheb
(d) Bahadur Shah
List-II
1. Deported to Rangoon
2. Fled to Nepal
3. Captured and executed
4. Killed in battle
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 2 4 3 1
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans : (A)

37. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?
1. Brahmo Samaj – Swami Brahmanand
2. Dev Samaj – Swami Satyanand Agnihotri
3. Arya Samaj – Swami Dayanand
4. Ram Krishna Mission – Swami Ramkrishna Paramhansa
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 4
Ans : (B)

38. Which one of the following journals had conducted a bitter campaign against the abolition of the practice of Sati ?
(A) Sambad Kaumadi
(B) Bangadoot
(C) Samachar Darpan
(D) Samachar Chandrika
Ans : (A)

39. In which of the following places ‘Jatiya Sarkar’ a parallel government was formed during the Quit India Movement ?
(A) Satara
(B) Tamaluk
(C) Ballia
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

40. Which one of the following was elected as president of Indian National Congress after the resignation of Subhas Chandra Bose ?
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(C) Sarojini Naidu
(D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Ans : (A)

41. The party which observed ‘Black day’ on 3 July, 1947 against partition of India was—
(A) Indian National Congress
(B) Forward Bloc
(C) Hindu Mahasabha
(D) Communist Party of India
Ans : (C)

42. Who was the author of ‘Pather Dabi’ a novel which glorified the path of violent revolution and which was banned by the British Government ?
(A) Premchand
(B) Sharatchandra Chatterji
(C) Bankimchandra Chatterji
(D) Ajai Ghosh
Ans : (B)

43. The newspaper ‘Man in India’ was edited by—
(A) Surjit Chadra Sinha
(B) Ashok Kumar Sarkar
(C) Ram Gopal Maheshwari
(D) Shiv Prasad Gupta
Ans : (A)

44. Who edited “Sahid Bhagat Singh : Dastavejo Ke Aine Mein” ?
(A) Irfan Habib
(B) Malavinder Jit Singh
(C) Chaman Lal
(D) Amalesh Tripathi
Ans : (C)

45. Which of the following writers was not associated with ‘economic nationalism’ ?
(A) R. C. Dutt
(B) G. V. Joshi
(C) Dadabhai Naoroji
(D) Annie Besant
Ans : (D)

46. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R)—
Assertion (A) : Dadabhai Naoroji founded East India Association in London.
Reason (R) : He wanted to influence the British Public Opinion.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false
Ans : (A)

47. Which one of the following was not a member of the Hunter committee set up to enquire into the Jallianwala bagh massacre ?
(A) Lord Hunter
(B) General Dyer
(C) W. F. Rice
(D) Sir Thomas Smith
Ans : (B)

48. Which one of the following was not a slave of Mohammad Ghori ?
(A) Ikhtiyaruddin Bhakhtiyar Khalji
(B) Tajuddin Yaldauz
(C) Qutbuddin Aibak
(D) Shamsuddin Iltutmish
Ans : (D)

49. Who among the following writers has described the seven fold division of the Hindu society ?
(A) Ibn Khordadbah
(B) Abu zaid-Alhasan
(C) Al-Beruni
(D) Utbi
Ans : (A)

50. The foreign invader who plundered somnath temple was—
(A) Mohammad Ghori
(B) Masud III
(C) Muhammad Bin-Qasim
(D) Mahmud Ghaznavi
Ans : (D)

51. The first hand account of conquest of India by Mohammad Ghori and the history of newly established Turkish kingdom is found in which of the following texts ?
(A) Faqra-i-Muddabir
(B) Qamil-ut-Tawarikha
(C) Tabaqat-i-Nasiri
(D) Kitab-ul-Yamini
Ans : (C)

52. Select from the following options, the Arab invader who defeated Dahira, the king of Sindh in 712 A.D.—
(A) Budail
(B) Muhammad-bin-Qasim
(C) Sultan Mahmud
(D) Ubaidullah
Ans : (B)

53. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Diwan-i-Mushtakharaj – Alauddin Khalji
(B) Diwan-i-Amirkohi – Mohammad Tughlaq
(C) Diwan-i-Khairat – Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(D) Diwan-i-Riyasat – Balban
Ans : (D)

54. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R)—
Assertion (A) : Alauddin built the siri fort.
Reason (R) : He wished to safeguard Delhi from Mongol invasions.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false
Ans : (A)

55. The statement “India is not Arabia, it is not practically feasible to convert it into Darul Islam.” is associated with—
(A) Iltutmish
(B) Balban
(C) Alauddin Khalji
(D) Mohammad-Bin-Tughlaq
Ans : (A)

56. With which sultan of Delhi do you associate the compilation of Kingship theory and principles of administration called ‘vassayya’ ?
(A) Iltutmish
(B) Balban
(C) Alauddin Khalji
(D) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
Ans : (B)

57. Which of the following is correct ?
(A) The ministers during the Sultanate period were appointed and dismissed by the Khalifa
(B) The ministers during the Sultanate period were appointed and dismissed by the Ulema
(C) The ministers during the Sultanate period were appointed and dismissed by the Qazi
(D) The ministers during the Sultanate period were appointed and dismissed by the Sultan
Ans : (D)

58. Which one of the following works of Amir Khusrau deals with the military expeditions of Alauddin Khalji ?
(A) Nuh Siphar
(B) Khajain-ul-Futuh
(C) Miftah-ul-Futuh
(D) Quairanus Sadain
Ans : (B)

59. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)—
Assertion (A) : Bahlol’s theory was ‘Kingship is kinship’.
Reason (R) : Bahlol respected Afghan tribal sentiments.
In the context of the above statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false
Ans : (A)

60. What was the religion of the king Krishnadeva Raya ?
(A) Vaishnavism
(B) Shaivism
(C) Jainism
(D) Buddhism
Ans : (A)

61. In which capacity thousands of women were employed in the empire of Vijayanagar ?
(A) Accountants
(B) Royal bodyguards
(C) Palace guards
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

62. Select the correct chronological order of following reformers of the medieval Bhakti movements by using code given below—
1. Namdeva
2. Vallabhacharya
3. Ramananda
4. Kabir
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 3, 4, 1
(C) 3, 4, 1, 2
(D) 4, 1, 2, 3
Ans : (C)

63. Who was the founder of Pushti marg ?
(A) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu
(B) Vallabhacharya
(C) Madhavacharya
(D) Yamunacharya
Ans : (B)

64. Who was the founder of Qalandariya sect ?
(A) Skeikh Badiuddin Shah
(B) Kutubuddin Kalandar
(C) Shah Abdullah
(D) Abdul Aziza Makki
Ans : (D)

65. In which Hindu Kingdom of medieval India the image of deity Tirupati or Lord Venkateshvara has been depicted on its gold coins ?
(A) The Vijayanagar Empire
(B) The Kingdom of Hoyasalas of Dwarasamudra
(C) The Kingdom of Kakathiyas of Warrangal
(D) The Kingdom of Yadavas of Devagiri
Ans : (A)

66. Who built the city of Nagalapura ?
(A) Bukka I
(B) Devaraya I
(C) Krishnadeva Raya
(D) Virupaksha
Ans : (C)

67. In which language did Babur wrote his autobiography ?
(A) Farsee
(B) Arabi
(C) Turki
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

68. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)—
Assertion (A) : Akbar was the greatest among the Mughal emperors and one among the
great rulers of India.
Reason (R) : He was an ambitious ruler.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

69. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists—
List-I (Sufi order)
(a) Qadiriya order
(b) Firdausiya order
(c) Chistiya order
(d) Suhrawardia order
List-II (Sufi Saints)
1. Khwaja Nizamuddin
2. Shaikh Shahabuddin
3. Shaikh Sharfuddin Yahya Manairi
4. Shaikh Abdul Qadir Gilani
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 3 1
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans : (D)

70. To whom did Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya bestow the title of ‘Ain-i-Hind (Mirror of India) ?
(A) Shaikh Sirajuddin Usmani
(B) Shaikh Nasiruddin Chirag Dehlavi
(C) Khwaja Syed Muhammad Gesudaraj
(D) Shaikh Bahauddin Zakaria
Ans : ()

71. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)—
Assertion (A) : Mughal emperors from Humayun to Jahangir were obsessed with ‘Nur’ or light.
Reason (R) : They considered kingship as a light emanating from God to king.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is the true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

72. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists—
List-I (Years)
(a) 1527 A.D.
(b) 1540 A.D.
(c) 1565 A.D.
(d) 1575 A.D.
List-II (Events)
1. Battle of Tukarai
2. Battle of Talikota
3. Battle of Kanwah
4. Battle of Kannauj
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 1 3 2
Ans : (C)

73. When was the famous ‘Treaty of Chittor’ signed during the reign of Jahangir ?
(A) 1605 A.D.
(B) 1610 A.D.
(C) 1615 A.D.
(D) 1620 A.D.
Ans : (C)

74. Which Mughal emperor wrote a will and instructed his sons, that they continue Asad Khan as the vazir ?
(A) Akbar
(B) Jahangir
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Aurangzeb
Ans : (D)

75. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer, using the code given below the lists—
List-I (Year)
(a) 1627 A.D.
(b) 1659 A.D.
(c) 1666 A.D.
(d) 1674 A.D.
List-II (Events)
1. Shivaji crowned himself at Raigarh and assumed title of Maharaja Chhatrapati.
2. Escape of Shivaji from Agra.
3. Birth of Shivaji.
4. Afzal, Khan was killed by Shivaji.
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 1 3 4 2
Ans : (B)

76. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the Mughal paintings ?
(A) The Mughal school of painting represents one of the most significant phases of Indian art.
(B) Akbar patronized both Persian and Indian painters.
(C) The Mughal school of painting was always under foreign influence.
(D) Jahangir had also taken much interest to promote the Mughal painting.
Ans : (C)

77. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Emperor / Name
(A) Babur : Zahiruddin Muhammad
(B) Humayun : Nasiruddin Muhammad
(C) Akbar : Jalaluddin Muhammad
(D) Jahangir : Muhiuddin Muhammad
Ans : (D)

78. What was ‘Paga’ in the Maratha administration ?
(A) Independent soldiers
(B) State dependant soldiers
(C) Professional soldiers
(D) Soldiers of other country
Ans : (B)

79. Which one of the following Harappan sites provides the evidence of the fire-alters ?
(A) Alamgirpur
(B) Banavali
(C) Kalibangan
(D) Kunal
Ans : (C)

80. Which of the following Harappan city sites had bipartite division – high citadel and lower town ?
1. Harappa
2. Mohenjodaro
3. Kalibangan
4. Surkotada
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (C)

81. Which one of the following wives of Shivaji became sati ?
(A) Puttabai
(B) Sakawarbai
(C) Soyrabai
(D) None of the above
Ans : ()

82. Which one of the following statements is not correct about Shivaji ?
(A) He was simple and religious in his personal life
(B) He did not force any Muslim to embrace Hinduism
(C) He forced prisoners of war to become slave
(D) He organised Marathas against Mughal empire
Ans : (C)

83. Who among the following priests, led the confederacy of the ten kings against Sud-asa ?
(A) Visvamitra
(B) Vasishtha
(C) Bharadwaja
(D) Gritsamada
Ans : (A)

84. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below—
List-I
(a) Rigveda
(b) Yajurveda
(c) S-amaveda
(d) Atharvaveda
List-II
1. Gopatha Brahamana
2. Satapatha Brahmana
3. Aitareya Brahmana
4. Tandya Brahmana
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 3 1
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 1 3 2 4
Ans : (B)

85. Which one of the following statements about the Indus Civilization is correct ?
(A) The authors of the Indus Valley Civilization had no trade relations with countries outside India
(B) The authors of the Indus Valley Civilization did not worship Gods and Goddesses
(C) The Indus Valley people know how to construct carts
(D) The Indus Valley people were not familiar with cotton
Ans : (C)

86. Which of the Vedic Gods is described as supervising the moral order ?
(A) Indra
(B) Varuna
(C) Rudra
(D) Vishnu
Ans : (B)

87. What was main contribution of Jainism to Indian Philosophy ?
(A) The doctrine of rebirth
(B) The doctrine of Syadvada
(C) The doctrine of immortality of soul
(D) The doctrine of Brahma is nirguna
Ans : (B)

88. Arrange in a chronological sequence the following varsavasas of Gautam Buddha during the first decade of his enlightenment—
1. Kausambi
2. Rajagriha
3. Risipattana
4. Vaisali
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Codes :
(A) 2, 1, 3, 4
(B) 3, 4, 2, 1
(C) 4, 3, 1, 2
(D) 3, 2, 4, 1
Ans : (D)

89. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below—
List-I (Jain Tirthankara)
(a) Ajit Nath
(b) Vimal Nath
(c) Shanti Nath
(d) Parshava Nath
List-II (Birth Place)
1. Kashi
2. hastinapur
3. Kampilya
4. Ayodhya
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (D)

90. The Jain Tirthankara Mahavira has been mentioned in the early Buddhist Literature as—
(A) Nigantha Nataputta
(B) Vardhamana
(C) Vesaliya
(D) Videhaputta
Ans : (A)

91. Which of the following inscriptions proves Chandragupta Maurya’s conquest of Saurashtra ?
(A) Ashoka’s rock edict of Shahbajgarhi
(B) Ashoka’s rock edict of Mansehra
(C) Seventh pillar edict of Ashoka
(D) Junagarh rock edict of Rudradamana
Ans : (D)

92. The Syrian ambassador who visited the court of Bindusara was—
(A) Dionysus
(B) Daimachus
(C) Hegesander
(D) Athenaus
Ans : (B)

93. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below—
List-I (Ashoka’s contemporary rulers)
(a) Antiyoka
(b) Antikini
(c) Maka
(d) Turamaya
List-II (Countries where they ruled)
1. Cyrene
2. Egypt
3. Macedonia
4. Syria
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 4 2 3
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans : (D)

94. Which of the following is not a text of Buddhism ?
(A) Jatakas
(B) Acharangasutra
(C) Dighnikaya
(D) Sumangalavilasini
Ans : (B)

95. Who among the following has been considered a Lady Tirthankara in the Svetambara
tradition ?
(A) Sumatinatha
(B) Santinatha
(C) Mallinatha
(D) Kunthunatha
Ans : (C)

96. Which of the following inscriptions of the time of Kanishka indicates that his empire was extended upto Champa in the east ?
(A) Sarnath Inscription
(B) Saheth-Maheth inscription
(C) Rabataka inscription
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

97. Who captured the famous ‘silk route’ of central Asia ?
(A) Ashoka
(B) Kanishka
(C) Menander
(D) Harsha
Ans : (B)

98. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given
below—
Assertion (A) : Bacchanalian scenes are also found in Mathura art.
Reason (R) : The Mathura artists were aware of the Gandhara art tradition.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are ture, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (D)

99. What was the function of the officer known as ‘Gopa’ during the reign of Chandragupta Maurya ?
(A) He was incharge of a Janapada
(B) He was incharge of a group of villages
(C) He was incharge of a Dronamukha
(D) He was the president of a municipal board
Ans : (B)

100. Which of the following Mauryan pillars were surmounted by lion capital ?
1. Koluha Pillar
2. Lauriya Nandangarh Pillar
3. Sanchi Pillar
4. Sarnath Pillar
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 3
Ans : (A)